Achim K. Krull

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

Some questions on the GED test may not give you enough information to find the right answer. For example, a question may ask for a conclusion that you can't make from the information given. Even if you know some information that would help you solve the problem, don't use it. When you take the GED, you bring with you the knowledge of what the basic operations are and how to use them. You aren't expected to know the dimensions of some fictional character's room or how well a character does on her reading scores. You're expected to know how to solve problems and to leave the specifics of the problems to the GED test-makers. Not every question on the GED Math test is solvable. If you come across a question that doesn't include enough information to solve the problem or it can't be answered with the information given, don't panic! Reread the question to make sure it can't be answered and then choose the appropriate answer choice, which is usually "not enough information given" or some variation. Don't assume that when a question includes the answer choice "not enough information given," it's a clue to mean that you don't have enough information, because some questions that can be solved include this answer choice to make you think. Use this clue only when you've already determined that the question can't be solved. Here's an example: Carmen bought a new Thunderbolt 8 as a gift to himself. He was impressed with its shiny aluminum wheels, its all-electronic dashboard, and its ventilated leather seats. The acceleration made him feel like a race car driver. He opted for rustproofing and a deluxe GPS and sound system. He negotiated with the salesperson for several hours to get a monthly payment he could barely afford. What were his annual insurance premiums if he was under 25? A. $4,159 B. $4,638 C. $5,200 D. not enough information given This question includes a lot of information; unfortunately, none of it pertains to the question, and Choice (D) is the only answer possible.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

Questions about geography and the world make up 15 percent of the GED Social Studies test. By "the world," the test-makers mean that these questions are of universal, not national, concern—although the concerns of other countries will often sound very similar to our own. The questions on this portion of the test are often very topical, including subjects like sustainability and environmental issues, population issues, cultural diversity, and migration. You won't have to know anything about the specific countries that are mentioned; you'll just need to be able to analyze and evaluate the supplied text or graphics, as in the following practice questions, which are based on a transcript from a fictional newscast. Practice questions The practice questions refer to the following newscast. World Environmental News Good evening and welcome to World Environmental News. Our stories this evening: cyclones in Korea, hurricane near Mexico, flooding in Europe and India, volcanic eruptions in New Guinea, drought in Australia, tornadoes in the United States, hailstorms in Italy, earthquakes in Iran, and locusts in Denmark. Now, let's look at our top stories. Drought in Australia: The wheat fields west of Canberra, New South Wales, are in great danger today because of the ongoing drought. If the drought continues, farmers may have to write off this year's entire crop, and this will likely lead to financial ruin for many of them. To add to the misery, hundreds of thousands of sheep had to be sold because there was not enough water for them to drink. Locusts in Denmark: The unseasonably warm weather in Denmark is proving to be inviting to the lowly locust, a major crop-eating pest. Normally found along the Mediterranean coast, the locust recently has been found far from its normal habitat. These discoveries in southwest Denmark are causing concern because locusts have not been seen in Denmark for more than 50 years. Hurricane near Mexico: Hurricane Herman is losing force off the Pacific coast of Mexico. The country is giving a collective sigh of relief as the hurricane winds down. For wine drinkers: And a last note for you wine drinkers. The recent violent hailstorms in Italy have devastated vineyards, and wine producers are warning of a poor grape harvest. This means lower wine production and, consequently, higher prices. There's more as nature lashes out. Tune in again for more World Environmental News. How does extreme drought cause financial problems for farmers? A. Farmers lose their entire year's crop and income. B. Selling off large herds of sheep at once leads to much lower prices and fewer sheep for future breeding stock. C. There may be a minor problem, but crop insurance covers these losses. D. Choices (A) and (B). Why is the finding of locusts in Denmark significant? A. It reinforces the idea of climate change and global warming. B. Prevailing winds have shifted. C. Foreign ships carried insects, and more stringent inspections of ships are required. D. It is an isolated incident and has no real significance. Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (D). The extreme drought conditions in Australia led to both crop failures and the need to sell off far more sheep than usual. Both represent financial losses. Therefore, Choices (A) and (B) are correct. Although Choice (C) may be true, no information offered supports the idea that crop insurance exists for these farmers. The correct answer is Choice (A). Because of unseasonably warm weather, locusts were found in Denmark. Locusts are drawn to warm weather. The fact that Denmark, a northern European country, is warm enough to allow locusts to survive means that the local climate must be warming. Although the newscast doesn't say so, in the context of all the other information presented, this fact supports the argument for climate change. You must interpret the information to arrive at the correct conclusion.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

Economics questions make up about 15 percent of the GED Social Studies test. If you want to ace them, you should have a basic understanding of the major economic theories, such as supply and demand, as well as the role of government policies in the economy. The best way to solve these questions is with good analysis and evaluation skills; by carefully reading the supplied passage or graphic, you should be able to figure out the correct answer, even if the topic is unfamiliar to you. The following practice questions are based on a book excerpt that describes the Panic of 1873. Even if you know nothing about this event, as long as you don't panic, you should do fine... Practice questions The practice questions refer to the following passage, which is excerpted from CliffsQuickReview U.S. History I, by P. Soifer and A. Hoffman (John Wiley & Sons, Inc.) The Panic of 1873 During his second term, Grant was still unable to curb the graft in his administration, Secretary of War William Belknap was impeached by the House, and he resigned in disgrace for taking bribes from dishonest Indian agents. The president's personal secretary was involved with the Whiskey Ring, a group of distillers who evaded paying internal revenue taxes. A much more pressing concern though was the state of the economy. In 1873, over-speculation in railroad stocks led to a major economic panic. The failure of Jay Cooke's investment bank was followed by the collapse of the stock market and the bankruptcy of thousands of businesses; crop prices plummeted and unemployment soared. Much of the problem was related to the use of greenbacks for currency. Hard-money advocates insisted that paper money had to be backed by gold to curb inflation and level price fluctuations, but farmers and manufacturers, who needed easy credit, wanted even more greenbacks put in circulation, a policy that Grant ultimately opposed. He recommended and the Congress enacted legislation in 1875 providing for the redemption of greenbacks in gold. Because the Treasury needed time to build up its gold reserves, redemption did not go into effect for another four years, by which time the longest depression in American history had come to an end. What were the main problems President Grant had in his second term with his government? A. problems with his administration B. problems with whiskey C. problems with the IRS D. problems with personal bankruptcy What type of money was used for investment? A. British pounds B. silver C. gold D. greenbacks Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (A). The main problems President Grant faced involved grafts in his administration, which means that members of his administration faced all sorts of problems and left their jobs under pressure. The other answers are incorrect, based on the passage. The correct answer is Choice (D). Greenbacks—not British pounds, gold, or silver—were used as a source of investment capital.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

Many important events in American history were related to U.S. foreign policy. For the GED Social Studies test, you should have a general knowledge of topics like World Wars I and II, the Cold War, and American foreign policy since 9/11. The following practice questions are based on a passage describing the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962. If you're familiar with those events, the questions should be easy to answer; if you aren't, don't worry—you can find the answers by carefully reading the text. Practice questions The practice questions refer to the following passage about the Cuban Missile Crisis, excerpted from U.S. History For Dummies, by Steve Wiegand (John Wiley & Sons, Inc.). During the summer of 1962, the Soviets began developing nuclear missile sites in Cuba. That meant they could easily strike targets over much of North and South America. When air reconnaissance photos confirmed the sites' presence on October 14, JFK had to make a tough choice: Destroy the sites and quite possibly trigger World War III, or do nothing, and not only expose the country to nuclear destruction but, in effect, concede first place in the world domination race to the USSR. Kennedy decided to get tough. On October 22, 1963, he went on national television and announced the U.S. Navy would throw a blockade around Cuba and turn away any ships carrying materials that could be used at the missile sites. He also demanded the sites be dismantled. Then the world waited for the Russian reaction. On October 26, Soviet leader Nikita Khrushchev sent a message suggesting the missiles would be removed if the United States promised not to invade Cuba and eventually removed some U.S. missiles from Turkey. The crisis — perhaps the closest the world came to nuclear conflict during the Cold War — was over, and the payoffs were ample. Why was the placement of Soviet missiles in Cuba so important to both the Soviet Union and the United States? A. This was the only way missiles of that time could reach into North and South America. B. The Soviets wanted to show their support for Fidel Castro. C. It provided an important trade opportunity. D. None of the above. What triggered the Soviet move to put missiles capable of attacking the United States into bases in Cuba? A. The Soviet Union was preparing to attack the United States. B. Fidel Castro demanded them as protection against an American invasion of Cuba. C. The United States had placed its own missiles in Turkey on the border of the Soviet Union. D. The Soviets wanted to divert attention from the Vietnam War. Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (A). At that time, missiles couldn't cross intercontinental distances. As a result, locations close to your intended target were important. That's why the United States placed missiles into Turkey that could attack the Soviet Union. The U.S.S.R. was simply responding in kind when it decided to build missile bases in Cuba. There was no trade benefit to the Soviet Union, and although it may have wanted to show support for Fidel Castro, that wasn't the main reason. The correct answer is Choice (C). The United States had placed missiles in Turkey that directly threatened the heartland of the Soviet Union. Soviet actions in Cuba were a direct response. The Vietnam War hadn't yet begun, and there's no evidence that the Soviet Union was preparing to attack the United States. Although Castro may have demanded the missiles as protection, that wasn't the key element in the Soviets' decision, nor is that argument supported by the text.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

American history is a colorful, exciting tapestry of people and events. Since American history makes up about 20 percent of the GED Social Studies test, you can expect to find a few of those threads woven into the exam. To maximize your score, you should be familiar with important and pivotal events, from the American Revolution to the Civil War to the Civil Rights Movement. You should also be aware of important historical documents, one of which you'll use to answer the following practice questions. Practice questions The practice questions refer to the following passage, which is excerpted from The Declaration of Independence, 1776. Charges against the King He has forbidden his governors to pass laws of immediate and pressing importance, unless suspended in their operation till his assent should be obtained; and when so suspended, he has utterly neglected to attend to them. He has refused to pass other laws for the accommodation of large districts of people, unless those people would relinquish the right of representation in the legislature — a right inestimable to them, and formidable to tyrants only. He has called together legislative bodies at places unusual, uncomfortable, and distant from the depository of their public records, for the sole purpose of fatiguing them into compliance with his measures. He has dissolved representative houses repeatedly, for opposing, with manly firmness, his invasions on the rights of the people. He has refused, for a long time after such dissolutions, to cause others to be elected; whereby the legislative powers, incapable of annihilation, have returned to the people at large, for their exercise, the state remaining in the meantime exposed to all the dangers of invasion from without, and convulsions within. He has endeavored to prevent the population of these states; for that purpose obstructing the laws for naturalization of foreigners; refusing to pass others to encourage their migration hither, and raising the conditions of new appropriations of lands. He has obstructed the administration of justice, by refusing his assent to laws for establishing judiciary powers. He has made judges dependent on his will alone, for the tenure of their offices, and the amount and payment of their salaries. He has erected a multitude of new offices, and sent hither swarms of officers, to harass our people, and eat out their substance. He has kept among us, in times of peace, standing armies, without the consent of our legislature. He has affected to render the military independent of, and superior to, the civil power. The king neglected the colonies in many ways, especially by A. failing to provide money B. failing to pass laws C. removing their right of condemnation D. giving power to his governors How did the king obstruct the judicial system? A. He made it independent of his authority. B. He erected new offices. C. He refused to enact certain laws. D. He harassed the people. Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (B). According to the first paragraph of the passage, the king neglected the colonies in a number of ways. Of the ways listed here, only failing to pass laws (ones that would alleviate grievances) is correct. Although the other choices are grievances, they can't be alleviated until the appropriate laws are passed. The correct answer is Choice (C). The seventh paragraph of the passage states that the king didn't give his approval to laws that would've created a local judicial system.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

The decisions and actions of federal and state lawmakers have a huge effect on the lives of average Americans. Because of this, you can expect the GED Social Studies test to contain some questions about U.S. politics. As you'll see in the following practice questions, if you run into a reading passage or question that seems intimidating, don't panic: in the case of a reading passage, the answers will always be found somewhere in the text. And if you're still not sure, you can always eliminate the obviously wrong answers and use some common sense to choose from the remaining ones. Practice questions Questions 1 and 2 refer to the following excerpt from the U.S. Embassy's IIP Digital website. Democracies fall into two basic categories, direct and representative. In a direct democracy, citizens, without the intermediary of elected or appointed officials, can participate in making public decisions. Such a system is clearly most practical with relatively small numbers of people — in a community organization, tribal council, or the local unit of a labor union, for example — where members can meet in a single room to discuss issues and arrive at decisions by consensus or majority vote. Some U.S. states, in addition, place "propositions" and "referenda" — mandated changes of law — or possible recall of elected officials on ballots during state elections. These practices are forms of direct democracy, expressing the will of a large population. Many practices may have elements of direct democracy. In Switzerland, many important political decisions on issues, including public health, energy, and employment, are subject to a vote by the country's citizens. And some might argue that the Internet is creating new forms of direct democracy, as it empowers political groups to raise money for their causes by appealing directly to like-minded citizens. However, today, as in the past, the most common form of democracy, whether for a town of 50,000 or a nation of 50 million, is representative democracy, in which citizens elect officials to make political decisions, formulate laws, and administer programs for the public good. The federal government of the United States is an example of (direct democracy or representative democracy). One example of allowing the population as a whole to vote on an issue in America would be A. a recall election B. election of a local mayor C. the election of the president D. a school board election Answers and explanations The correct answer is representative democracy. In America, citizens elect officials, from state representatives to federal senators, who represent the interests of individual citizens in the administration of the country. The correct answer is Choice (A). Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all examples of indirect or representative democracy, where someone is elected to represent the voter. For example, mayors, who citizens elect directly, are in office to represent them. The voters don't make political decisions; the mayor in council does. Only in recall elections is the voters' voice directly applied to a decision.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

On the GED Social Studies test, the topics of civics and government are well represented—in fact, they take up about half of the questions. To do well, you should be familiar with the different branches of government, and you should understand concepts like separation of powers (legislative, executive, and judicial), individual rights and civic responsibilities, and the rule of law. Like the following practice questions, some questions on the GED may seem a little difficult at first glance. If you're not sure which answer is correct, a good strategy is to start by ruling out the ones that are obviously wrong or that don't directly answer the question, and then try to pick the best option from the remaining choices. Practice questions Under the Constitution of the United States, some powers belong to the federal government and some powers belong to the states. Which of the following is a power that belongs to the state government? A. to create an army B. to print money C. to make treaties D. to provide education Questions 2–5 refer to the following chart. Use the words and phrases below to fill the missing spaces. Put the letter of the answer in its correct space, and then fill in the answer on your answer sheet. A. Legislative B. Can veto legislation C. Enforces laws D. Interprets law Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (D). The federal government has the power to create an army, to print money, and to make treaties. Providing education is a power reserved for the states. The correct answer is Choice (A). The legislative branch makes the laws. The correct answer is Choice (C). One power of the executive branch is to enforce the laws made by the legislative branch. The correct answer is Choice (D). One power of the judicial branch is to interpret the laws. The correct answer is Choice (B). The executive branch (the President) can veto laws made by the legislative branch.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

Our planet is made up of four basic systems: atmosphere, biosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere. When these systems interact with each other, the results can be pretty amazing—and sometimes scary (think: volcanoes, tidal waves, and earthquakes); no surprise, then, that some questions on the GED Science test will focus on these interactions. The following practice questions are typical of what you'll run into. In both questions, you start by reading a brief passage, and then you have to answer a question based on the information in the passage. Keep in mind that the GED won't give you questions that require extra, in-depth knowledge of a topic; all the information you need should be in the supplied text. Practice questions The first question refers to the following excerpt from NASA's Science website. Examples of the types of forecasts that may be possible are: the outbreak and spread of harmful algal blooms, occurrence and spread of invasive exotic species, and productivity of forest and agricultural systems. This Focus Area also will contribute to the improvement of climate projections for 50–100 years into the future by providing key inputs for climate models. This includes projections of future atmospheric CO2 and CH4 concentrations and understanding of key ecosystem and carbon cycle process controls on the climate system. Long-term forecasts of this type are important to people because A. they will help hunters know when their favorite sport will become impossible B. they will allow scientists to develop research projects that will address the consequences of dramatic climate change C. people will know what type of winter clothing to buy for their children D. it will spur research into more efficient subway systems The second question refers to the following excerpt from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's website on climate change. A food web is made up of predators and prey that interact in a habitat or ecosystem. The impact of climate change on a particular species can ripple through a food web and affect a wide range of other organisms…. Declines in the duration and extent of sea ice in the Arctic leads to declines in the abundance of ice algae, which thrive in nutrient-rich pockets in the ice. These algae are eaten by zooplankton, which are in turn eaten by Arctic cod, an important food source for many marine mammals, including seals. Seals are eaten by polar bears. The information in the passage implies that a rise in Arctic temperature may result in A. an increase in the nutrient-rich pockets in the ice B. a decline in the number of polar bears C. an extension of the sea ice D. an increase in the species of zooplankton Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (B). More accurate forecasts will allow scientists to work on experiments to address the changes that may be coming. Choices (A) and (C) may be possibilities but aren't mentioned in the passage. Choice (D) is probably a good general idea but has nothing to do with the passage. The correct answer is Choice (B). The passage explains the ripple effect of a food web: It can be reasonably inferred that a rise in Arctic temperature will cause a decline in the extent of sea ice, which will lead to fewer ice algae. Fewer ice algae will lead to fewer zooplankton, which will lead to fewer cod, which will lead to fewer seals. Without a sufficient diet of seals, polar bear populations will decline.

Article / Updated 06-30-2017

When you look up at the stars on a clear night and wonder what's really up there, you're thinking about space science. When you look at the computer screen during the GED Science test, the view may be less exciting, but you'll probably run into some exciting questions about space. Space science focuses on problems such as what the universe (including our own solar system) is made of, and how old everything is in space. It also looks closer to home—for example, studying how the moon affects Earth as it revolves around us (think: tides and eclipses). The following practice questions may look intimidating, but if you stay calm and concentrate on what they're really asking, you should find the answers in no time. Practice questions The first question refers to the following passage based on information on the NASA website. The seasons on Earth are caused by the tilt of the Earth as it rotates on its axis and revolves around the Sun. The 23.5 degree tilt of the Earth's axis results in changes of the angle of incident sunlight. A common misconception is that the seasons are caused by the distance between the Earth and Sun. In fact, summer in the Northern Hemisphere occurs at aphelion, the farthest distance between the Earth and Sun, and follows summer solstice when incident sunlight is most concentrated along the Tropic of Cancer, 23 degrees 26 minutes 22 seconds. The point at which the Earth and Sun are farthest apart is called the A. solstice B. aphelion C. axis D. Tropic of Cancer The second question refers to the following table, which is adapted from Hands-On General Science Activities with Real-Life Applications, by Pam Walker and Elaine Wood (John Wiley & Sons, Inc.). If you were an aeronautical engineer planning a journey to Mars, why would you prefer to go to a space station on the moon and then launch the rocket to Mars instead of going directly from Earth to Mars? A. Lower gravity on the moon means you need less fuel for the launch. B. You have more space to take off and land on the moon. C. No atmosphere means an easier takeoff. D. The moon is closer to Earth than Mars. Answers and explanations The correct answer is Choice (B). The passage states, "summer in the Northern Hemisphere occurs at aphelion, the farthest distance between the Earth and Sun … " This question requires you to find a detail in a dense passage, so practice close reading, which is careful and thorough reading of a text. The correct answer is Choice (A). Lower gravity on the moon means you need less fuel for the launch. The less fuel you need to launch, the less you have to carry. The gravity on the moon is less than that on Earth, so you need less force and less fuel to break free of gravity.

Article / Updated 06-29-2017

When someone tells you that you look like your parents or that you remind them of another relative, they’re talking about heredity. Reading a bit about heredity in biology-related books can help you prepare for the questions on the GED Science test. Keep in mind that you don’t have to dive too deep; you just need a basic understanding of how heredity works. (Hint: concentrate on the molecular level—DNA, chromosomes, alleles, and so on.) At first glance, the following practice questions may appear difficult, but if you have a general knowledge of how DNA works, you should be able to answer them fairly quickly. Practice questions The first question refers to the following passage, which is adapted from The Sciences: An Integrated Approach, 3rd Edition, by James Trefil and Robert M. Hazen (John Wiley & Sons, Inc.). Copying DNA Sequence The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies a sequence of DNA. To do this, a strand of DNA is mixed with nucleotides (DNA precursors). Nucleotides target a specific piece of DNA, as well as polymerase, an enzyme that helps to assemble DNA. Heat is applied until the temperature reaches 200 degrees F. The energy from the heating separates the DNA strands. The mixture is then cooled to 140 degrees F. At this temperature, the primers attach themselves to the DNA strands. Raising the temperature to 160 degrees F causes the nucleotides to begin to attach to the DNA strands. After all this, two copies of the DNA are created. To separate the DNA strands during the polymerase chain reaction, the addition of is necessary. The second question refers to the following passage. Paternity Testing DNA has become part of everyone’s vocabulary, and several crime shows on television use it as a key plot element. DNA has put criminals in jail and freed others. It is used as proof in trials and is an important dramatic tool on many television dramas and talk shows. Another use for DNA is not as dramatic. Because a child inherits the DNA of his or her parents, DNA testing can prove paternity. This is an example of a practical use for a scientific discovery. Because every person’s DNA is unique (except for identical twins), what forensic tool can DNA testing replace? A. eyewitness accounts B. shoe prints C. fingerprints D. sketch artist renderings Answers and explanations The correct answer is heat. The fourth sentence in the passage tells you that heating is the process that separates DNA strands. The correct answer is Choice (C). Although identical twins have the same DNA but different fingerprints, DNA evidence is often easier for crime lab specialists to find than intact fingerprints. Eyewitness accounts, shoe prints, and artist sketches aren’t as reliable as DNA or fingerprints.